Vrumfondel
2022-12-21 14:19:14
- #1
As 11ant so aptly puts it: "Renting out in lot size 1 is not really subject to amusement tax." Even though this concerns granny flats, I still think that millionaires tend not to see the single-family home as a capital investment. More often, I know cases where single-family homes are acquired through inheritance but not used by the owners themselves, and for various, partly sentimental reasons, they prefer to rent them out rather than sell them. Here in the Siebengebirge, houses are still changing hands, but you can already notice that prices no longer reach the levels they did two or three years ago.
Again: Few people here have dream houses, but also no one built a flair 125 like us has any claim to it solely based on their salary. And whether your arguments about why the conditions are the way they are now hold true, I, like some others here, have serious doubts about that.
Banks are, like all businesses, profit-oriented; how much this then goes toward "greed" can certainly be philosophized about at length.
Regarding the consideration about your friend: if the loan should still make sense for the bank at a lower rate, why couldn’t the loan have been concluded at that rate from the start? Where is the compromise on the part of the person affected who uses the same house but pays less? The bank concluded the loan contract based on the calculation of receiving amount X in cash every month. If they now only receive, for example, half of X, it is understandable that they do not want to go along with it. Because one can only assume that this reduction in payment will be permanent. Neither a dramatically increased income nor taking on a second borrower/repayer can be reasonably expected. So, where is the compromise?
That means it’s not even about foreclosure yet; even a normal purchase of a "divorce house" would be immoral as long as at least one person would have preferred to stay living in the house?
Again: Few people here have dream houses, but also no one built a flair 125 like us has any claim to it solely based on their salary. And whether your arguments about why the conditions are the way they are now hold true, I, like some others here, have serious doubts about that.
Banks are, like all businesses, profit-oriented; how much this then goes toward "greed" can certainly be philosophized about at length.
Regarding the consideration about your friend: if the loan should still make sense for the bank at a lower rate, why couldn’t the loan have been concluded at that rate from the start? Where is the compromise on the part of the person affected who uses the same house but pays less? The bank concluded the loan contract based on the calculation of receiving amount X in cash every month. If they now only receive, for example, half of X, it is understandable that they do not want to go along with it. Because one can only assume that this reduction in payment will be permanent. Neither a dramatically increased income nor taking on a second borrower/repayer can be reasonably expected. So, where is the compromise?
That means it’s not even about foreclosure yet; even a normal purchase of a "divorce house" would be immoral as long as at least one person would have preferred to stay living in the house?