11ant
2023-03-03 13:15:02
- #1
I have to disagree with you here: no law states that both parties have to share the broker costs. It only states that the costs for the buyer may not be higher than for the seller.
Let's say: it allows the broker to fleece both sides in full - I probably expressed that awkwardly ;-)
What I mainly wanted to say is: brokers are allowed to bleed both participants of the deal [whether an "although" or a "because" belongs in the sentence, the inclined readers may decide for themselves] even though he offers no added value for both sides (beyond not disturbing their naive belief).