House on parents' property - inheritance problems?

  • Erstellt am 2020-02-26 12:52:49

Musketier

2020-02-27 13:38:02
  • #1
From time to time, an employee from the [FA] expresses their opinion on a matter. I have also discussed cases with auditors for payroll tax, income tax, and sales tax that did not concern the audit period. However, the opinion is not binding, as the processor cannot verify at that time whether the matter has been fully described. Such a statement is of no use to the [TE]. A tax advisor is allowed to provide advice and may also be liable for their statement. So, this is the right contact person.
 

11ant

2020-02-27 15:56:44
  • #2
If you could legally acquire a property in Berlin by paying the property tax for it, then I would gladly do nothing else all day long.
 

Pianist

2020-02-27 17:01:59
  • #3
At no point was it a question of who owns the property. It is completely undisputed that the property belongs to my father. However, none of us were aware that this also meant the house belonged to him. Otherwise, we might have done things differently back then. No layperson would come up with such an idea. For us, it was always clear: he owns the property, and I own the house, so the house is not part of the inheritance.

This is yet another confirmation of my father’s negative attitude towards lawyers and tax advisors, because he believes anyway that you cannot rely on their advice. We were with a tax advisor at the time to discuss the project. And she never mentioned for a single word that the house automatically belongs to my father because the property belongs to him. Such a small insignificant side note is easy to forget...
 

Musketier

2020-02-27 17:42:35
  • #4
This construct of buildings on foreign land existed in GDR times and, to my knowledge, was extensively reversed in the 90s. Now, to my knowledge, it only exists in the area of the [Kleingartengesetz] and with leasehold contracts.

As you read here, this should be clear to the majority of property owners and not just to lawyers.
 

11ant

2020-02-27 18:02:27
  • #5
Only what corresponds to the facts can be clearnot what corresponds to contrary-to-fact naive beliefs. You refined father's property back then with your development – that might be an interesting question for tax law students, whether this wasn't actually a gift from you to him. A rogue who can imagine that the father similarly only fed the tax advisor with the information he thought necessary to tell?
 

saralina87

2020-02-27 19:00:03
  • #6


Yep, it is actually subject to gift tax. However, the residential value (as a liability) must be offset.
 

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