Henrik0817123
2016-05-18 06:58:40
- #1
1) I am now saying for the tenth time that I have rent plus liabilities of over 2,000 monthly. For years, and this has always been planned as an expense. These two amounts will disappear as the liabilities will also disappear with the start of the house. Accordingly, I have this entire amount for my total housing costs then. Why should I now calculate one part of my previous expenses as available funds and not the other?
2) I have now calculated several times that I will have about a constant rate of 1,500 euros and will need just over 30 years. I will not take a structure where I pay little for 15 years and then a lot for 15 years.
3) I always assume, and that’s why the part is more interesting where a larger sum is a private loan with a high interest rate part of the components – for that the rest with better conditions – that I will still make relatively many special repayments in the first 10 years. That way, a longer payment period at the end would fall away anyway.
There is already a cleaning lady and window cleaner now. That will of course be a bit more expensive, but it is also calculated. It would be illogical if that was no longer considered now?!
I simply cannot understand how one can react here as if one is taking on new debts in addition to existing debts, as if I were buying a third and fourth car. Why is it overlooked that there will be no other debts anymore and why is it overlooked that I am buying a house, therefore no longer having rent? That is something completely different than simply financing additional consumption?
What do you say about all the others who buy a house with fewer means? The 20k equity cannot really be relevant to the total amounts?!
2) I have now calculated several times that I will have about a constant rate of 1,500 euros and will need just over 30 years. I will not take a structure where I pay little for 15 years and then a lot for 15 years.
3) I always assume, and that’s why the part is more interesting where a larger sum is a private loan with a high interest rate part of the components – for that the rest with better conditions – that I will still make relatively many special repayments in the first 10 years. That way, a longer payment period at the end would fall away anyway.
There is already a cleaning lady and window cleaner now. That will of course be a bit more expensive, but it is also calculated. It would be illogical if that was no longer considered now?!
I simply cannot understand how one can react here as if one is taking on new debts in addition to existing debts, as if I were buying a third and fourth car. Why is it overlooked that there will be no other debts anymore and why is it overlooked that I am buying a house, therefore no longer having rent? That is something completely different than simply financing additional consumption?
What do you say about all the others who buy a house with fewer means? The 20k equity cannot really be relevant to the total amounts?!