I did not build with an architect, so I am completely unfamiliar with the HOAI.
The first thing I noticed is that when I add up the percentage figures in the contract, I come to 87%. Not all service phases are agreed upon, are they?
Furthermore, it would probably be necessary to check which version of DIN 276 is actually to be applied. The contract is certainly already several years old.
Search for this:
"Do costs have to be determined according to the new DIN 276 from now on?"
If I understand correctly, there are major differences between the old and the new DIN 276. If the old one is still to be applied here, the cost estimate in service phase 2 must be made according to DIN 276. (According to #7, this probably happened.)
For the determination of the billable costs, this could also apply, but apparently, deviating from what is stated in the contract, the billable costs were determined according to the Winden construction table, i.e. not according to the actual costs.
And again regarding the cost explosion, your father, as you claimed, received a cost estimate according to the individual trades with minimum and maximum. If the mason’s offer is so much more expensive than the maximum estimated there, then one could have already intervened back then and pulled the emergency brake. It has been widely reported in all the media that construction prices are exploding and craftsmen are submitting defensive offers.
If now, after 4 years, the daughter (who is not a contracting party) comes with loud accusations and questions everything from the last 4 years that was previously approved and signed by the contracting party, then I would also let her off the hook.
I originally just wanted to know if the architect’s claim is correct that she does not have to create any calculations according to DIN 275
If necessary, also with the general statement that this DIN is unknown to her.