Upcoming house purchase: buy with or without leasehold rights?

  • Erstellt am 2017-08-16 16:25:48

ypg

2017-08-18 12:53:55
  • #1


Basically, one has already taken action before the expiration (by simply dealing with options with the contracting party before the deadline) and prevents this repurchase.


This means that there are individual contracts that one should take a look at.

In this respect, one should first discuss the contract here and not legal texts
 

Caspar2020

2017-08-18 13:04:25
  • #2


Of course; and only then realizes that one is in a potentially very poor negotiating position. The leaseholder theoretically does not have to do anything unless something else was agreed (e.g. no right of renewal was granted).



Theoretically yes; practically not, because case law has apparently spoken on this. The few contracts I know explicitly mention the 2/3.

For the OP , however, three aspects will actually be important.

- Is only a right of first refusal agreed, or is it actually allowed to be purchased at any time? Some people tend to confuse that.

- And whether something like the following is stated:
"Encumbrances on the leasehold may not exceed 90 percent of the construction costs excluding the architect's fees."

- And how the extension of the leasehold for the affected property is regulated. In other words, is there at least a right of renewal? (which alone means nothing; one could circumvent that by not agreeing on a right of first refusal and not wanting to continue operating the property as leasehold (layperson’s opinion).



This discussion so far should already make clear that leasehold can be a field full of mines. Especially if the seller cannot provide this initially.

and depending on the actual arrangement, it is not worth 35 years. Therefore, also have this professionally reviewed after disposition.
 

ypg

2017-08-18 13:30:38
  • #3


Just quickly:
from whom do you still get something for your 80- or 100-year-old house, other than just the value of the land?
 

Caspar2020

2017-08-18 13:36:33
  • #4
If that is in good condition or completely renovated, or if you had built a new house on it after 70 years...

and even if not. It is still "your" house; and then suddenly no longer.
 

30156030

2017-08-18 13:43:21
  • #5
Oh dear... I can already tell that the topic of heritable building rights is not as trivial as it seems.

To clarify again in my case:

- The seller inherited the house from his deceased father and now wants to sell it privately
- The owner of the land is the state of NRW

I asked the seller to request the heritable building lease contract from the state of NRW. He already had contact with the state since he needs their consent for the sale of the house. However, the responsible clerk is on vacation and will only be reachable from Monday.

Of course, I don't know exactly how much the house alone is worth. I don't necessarily need an expert appraisal now, because...

1. The house is worth the price to me (The market currently determines the sale price, not the appraisal).
2. The bank itself determines the value for financing purposes.

Does anyone happen to know which criteria the bank uses for valuation? Can you roughly calculate the value yourself?

As an example: A friend recently bought a single-family house. Built in 1950, 135 sqm, good condition (but still has the old windows, etc.). Value of the house according to expert appraisal: €88,000
 

Caspar2020

2017-08-18 14:03:44
  • #6
What exactly will happen with you; we shall see. One should just keep in mind that leasehold is not a pony farm concept.



Very good



The bank will do that. Don't worry. They will determine the value. Especially the remaining years of the leasehold will not drive it up.

---
It will be interesting to hear who among the banks or advisors will even make an offer or do the work for it.
 

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