Alibert87
2022-03-09 10:35:29
- #1
So it is not because of money/assets, I believe. The heir (about 60 years old) lives in a house in the south and still has a property in Munich. I think it is mainly about the option to possibly move back here again.What interests me is, if the owner can no longer pay the nursing home costs, to what extent the children are still allowed to decide to whom the house is sold or how the contracts have to be designed so that you really get the house and the social welfare office does not have a say in the sale. In this whole construct, it is unclear to me why the children/the owner do not simply sell immediately or whether the children are already allowed to "sell" a house that does not/yet does not belong to them?