Paying "rent" to the partner... how?

Exciting topic, honestly.

In your case, where no children are planned and consequently no one is foregoing income because of it, one can certainly consider paying the partner the same rent that would have been incurred in a shared rental apartment. The couple would surely have agreed on which shares the financially better or worse-off partner should cover, it doesn’t have to be 50/50. Why not, whether you give the money to a landlord and pay for their house, or to the partner... It seems to be the same, these are costs that occur anyway.

I would definitely assess the situation differently if there were children involved and the woman supported the man’s career at the expense of her own income. But that is not planned.

I say this as someone who was only in the first situation – back then I paid half the rent of the previous apartment to my partner. Later, situation 2 occurred, but I don’t need to write about that here.

I would not mix this with grocery shopping or vacation. Those are different aspects that should be regulated separately.

Hello Tamstar, I have a similar situation. We are not married, the property belonged to her family, she financed the house alone without any problems. My monthly share corresponds approximately to 50% of the interest on a 100% financing + 50% of the additional costs. This means I am clearly below 50% of the rent for a comparable property. I would also find it unfair to use this as a reference, since the rental profit would then only be borne by me. With significant differences in income, however, the model is critical, since the claims on the house usually align with the higher earner.

Thank you for your contribution
So you are also not listed in the land register?

We earn similarly.

, details gladly via PM. Unfortunately, I can't send you any because your profile is restricted.

You are also not listed in the land register?

I am not listed in the land register for the house (in which we also live). However, I can definitely be found in other land registers.

In the case of marriage with the matrimonial property regime of community of accrued gains, it is also irrelevant. In the event of separation, the owner initially has the stronger position, but the assets acquired during the marriage must be divided. That means even without a land register entry, one acquires 50% of the assets gained during the marriage. That means the house can then be gone, even though it is his and was purchased before the marriage, if he cannot buy her out.