Vanben
2016-03-10 11:04:52
- #1
That is not correct. Both allowances are always applied to the total income.
I have never claimed otherwise.
In your example, the second income would effectively pay 45% tax, no matter how high it is.
A reduction of taxable income (whether through allowances or actual expenses) always concerns the amount that is "cut off at the upper end." The marginal tax rate is decisive here.
If for married couples a tax rate of 45% applies from a taxable annual income of 120,000 euros, this means that at a taxable income of 130,000 euros the 10,000 difference would be taxed at 45%.
If, in a marriage, one partner’s income is already at 120,000 euros, then (mathematically) the high tax rate of 45% immediately applies to a second income because every additional euro pushes the total taxable income over the 120,000 threshold.
This is of course an extreme example, but it works the same way in principle with lower incomes and (marginal) tax rates.
It is therefore actually the case that in this scenario a second income—regardless of its amount—would be taxed at 45% from the first euro onward.
The tax classes in the annual consideration do not play a role either.
Again the question here: Where did you read that I see this differently?! It is always about the issue described here of the burden caused by the marginal tax rate. This circumstance becomes tangible when considering different tax classes (III/V).