Newly built first-time horror condominium purchased

  • Erstellt am 2019-12-27 13:10:50

guckuck2

2019-12-28 16:31:11
  • #1
Tax is only due if there is actually a profit. The OP apparently lives in a situation that is untenable for him; do we really want to discuss tax avoidance in this context?
 

Pinkiponk

2019-12-28 16:42:17
  • #2

That's true, speculation tax is an issue in this context. There seems to be an exception if the property was owner-occupied in the year of sale and the two preceding years. But it is indeed a matter for a specialist.
 

Scout

2019-12-28 18:07:17
  • #3
that is a property previously used personally - no capital gains tax applies!
 

11ant

2019-12-28 18:56:09
  • #4



Do I understand your words in combination correctly that the OP would now sell owner-occupied without capital gains tax before sale, but with interim renting would either have to use it owner-occupied again for one year before selling or wait until he has owned the apartment for ten years?
 

guckuck2

2019-12-28 19:09:25
  • #5


Almost. After rental, he would have to have used the property himself in the year of sale and the two years before.
Or hold the property for a total of 10 years.
 

Scout

2019-12-28 19:42:15
  • #6
Or thirdly: if the property was used exclusively for own use. That means since purchase no one other than the buyer, their partner and/or their children were registered there until sale.

In any case, I understand § 23 Income Tax Act, paragraph 1 as follows

“Excepted are assets that were used exclusively for own residential purposes or in the year of sale and the two preceding years for own residential purposes between acquisition or completion and sale;”
 

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