Loan agreement for only one person: advantages / disadvantages

To be honest, I can't really understand all of this.
Why the ex-wife has a right to even one cent of the appreciation of a house for which she paid 0 cents. Incomprehensible to me.

That's probably one reason why I'm not married in my mid-30s

I totally agree with you!

Been very happy with my partner for 11 years.
I'm the sole owner on the land register because I paid for it alone.

Exactly THAT is the beauty of a relationship without marriage. If the partner stays with you, then it's because of the person! And not because of material stuff.

I'm sure there are very, very many happy marriages.
But looking at the divorce rate, I'm also sure there are quite a few unhappy ones

It's clear that some women see it differently.
Funny how women cling so stubbornly to this ancient concept, even though they seem to be so progressive these days...

At the end of the day, everyone has to know for themselves what they do.
As for me, I want to be told as little as possible by "others" (state, laws, etc.) about how to live my life.

This is the first time I’m hearing that. Normally (if nothing else has been agreed upon), in the event of a divorce, there is an equalization of accrued gains. Since the house already belonged to one partner at the beginning of the marriage, the gain (!) will be manageable. Half of that is owed to the other partner. However, this has nothing to do with any possible joint repayment.

Let’s assume that the initial assets are properly recorded. Then, for example, a house/land value of €500,000 is offset by debts of €400,000. The initial assets therefore amount to €100,000. After x years, the house value is €600,000 and the remaining debt is €200,000. Then there is a final asset of €400,000, i.e., a gain of €300,000 to be shared and paid out. Since the money probably isn’t sitting in an account during an ongoing loan, this basically leads to a forced sale. This can possibly be regulated differently with a marital contract, but the scope for one-sided arrangements is very limited. For example, in cases of very different incomes and asset situations, the gain can be arranged differently than 50/50, see discrepancy marriage.

By the way, inheritances are not counted towards the gain.

Same situation here. We hold 9 to 1 in the land register, which roughly corresponds to the repayment shares over the intended term.

The land register has nothing to do with it and despite 9 to 1 you will have to pay 50% in a divorce. Especially with men with your attitude, the wife often stays at home and raises the children, what is the compensation for that? Legally speaking, you cannot pay off a house alone in a marriage - you pay it from your joint income.

I am not married, so the land register does indeed count and that is fair for both sides.

And as for the children. No, it does not. It is roughly evenly distributed. It is just difficult when you are stuck at minimum wage and still somehow supposed/allowed to be grateful that you even have a job.

But the woman also has it good, living for years in a nice house without ever paying any rent or anything. Thus, of course, she has had more money in her pocket for years. Still, she gets a share of the house. Then I would actually have to involve the woman 50% in the repayment and save that money to possibly pay the woman out later. But I do not want my girlfriend/wife to have to help pay off the house; she should nicely spend her money on herself.