Execution planning first agreed upon - then excluded?

Exactly, here an employee signs a contract and it has no effect. So why does he sign it in the first place? Obviously, he doesn't have the authority, but he conveys this to the buyer. Do you get the employment contracts signed by the cleaning lady and later the boss signs, or does the contract come without a signature?

Presumably without a signature, but it could also be signed by the HR clerk who created the contract and it would have no effect whatsoever. In the case of the OP, however, it clearly states in the contract that it only becomes valid when the contract is made effective by the contract confirmation. And with this signature on the confirmation, it becomes, as the heading on the page suggests, a contract for work and services.

Presumably without a signature, but it could also be the HR clerk who prepared the contract who signs it and it would have no effect.

No effect? A contract of employment comes into existence with the signature of both parties on the contract!

If the HR clerk is not authorized to sign internally, this does not change the validity externally.

If the HR clerk is not authorized to sign internally, this does not affect the validity externally.

I am just wondering whether you are really a "sofa freight forwarder" or just someone who would like to be a "sofa freight forwarder"? In the former case, you would know that voki is right and you wouldn't be straining Musketiers' nerves right now Rhineland greetings from on the road Construction expert

Well, hopefully you have read the thread carefully enough for the statement, as that doesn't always work for you...

Well, I am a fallible person


Rhenish greetings from the road
Construction expert