You are mixing two things here. First, the decision whether to acquire the asset house at all. It has a 6.8 percent secure return and costs 300,000.
Completely independently of that is the financing of the asset. That is a second financial decision, which on its own can have a positive or negative net present value. So, I pay 2 percent interest to get 6.8 percent secure return. So, what do I do? Hmm...
You can practically save on maintenance calculations for 10-15 years. The first 5 years are anyway under warranty, afterwards the standard opinion is about 2.50 - 3.00 euros per sqm and year. Was it 125 sqm? Accordingly then 350 euros per year.
That is, sorry, wrong from start to finish.
The only meaningful comparative calculation was already made by himself in #70. My criticism of it was that you can only calculate that way if you were going to sell the house. Moreover, I found the chosen sales time arbitrary because it lies, among other things,
before the following:
But what are 45,000€ (1€/m²x125m²x12Mx30Y) worth in 30 years when you also consider inflation?
If after 30 years you may have to redo the roof, bathrooms, electricity, heating, etc., in my opinion you won’t get by with that.
You misjudge all these capital expenditures. Furthermore, the maintenance reserve is incorrectly applied.
The real savings through the house are quite simply to be seen. Tenant savings
from the time of the last installment. Until then, you have been building assets and paying interest. The return on the assets
until then has flowed into asset building.
The savings in %/year do not derive from paying 300k, but from the 300k + all interest + all maintenance incurred until then. It is further reduced by the maintenance reserves, which you apply completely wrongly and which, as has already been correctly said, are insufficient even with a conservative reserve at the first proper renovation.
The big difference compared to, for example, stocks is that in the - let’s say
fifteen - years in which you use the tenant savings to build assets by repaying the loan, you do not generate compound interest effects, which run from the first euro and the first day on stock portfolios. This difference, which concerns the repayment period (which in the specific example with 15 years is already short), you have to additionally calculate. But you don’t.
If you seriously wanted to compare house and stock market, you would also not take the return on the equity invested, but on the asset value. Meaning effectively: The greater the value increase of the house, the smaller(!) your return, which you can use for comparison. (Why selling and moving into an age-appropriate rental apartment can ultimately also be so attractive if the house really holds its value well).
From these arguments, it can be logically deduced that you are engaging in window dressing.
The fact that processes are semantically separated here because it is useful for accounting does not change the reality behind the numbers. For these reasons I consider your post factually wrong.