Wiesel29
2020-04-01 14:33:06
- #1
Since you seem to be so sure, I really had to ask the main income tax department head at the tax office again here.
It is definitely not correct or "allowed" in the private sector.
But it's basically already stated directly in § 9 para. 1 sentence 1 of the Income Tax Act.
The interest paid on debt does not serve the acquisition, securing, and preservation of income, as the rented property only serves as collateral and the loan agreement will also state that the rented property is merely pledged and that the financing is for another property.
I'm not saying it doesn't work, but it is not legal. So far, it only goes through very often because many offices are completely overloaded.
This exclusively refers to privately rented properties.
It is definitely not correct or "allowed" in the private sector.
But it's basically already stated directly in § 9 para. 1 sentence 1 of the Income Tax Act.
The interest paid on debt does not serve the acquisition, securing, and preservation of income, as the rented property only serves as collateral and the loan agreement will also state that the rented property is merely pledged and that the financing is for another property.
I'm not saying it doesn't work, but it is not legal. So far, it only goes through very often because many offices are completely overloaded.
This exclusively refers to privately rented properties.