Ybias78
2020-07-16 15:36:34
- #1
That only falls by the wayside if one side does not respect the other. I really don’t understand how someone can live for years with someone else rent-free, now want to own but only want to pay a price from some time onward. Would she also pay more if the house had been worth more earlier? Probably not— I couldn’t somehow comprehend it if she had at least paid the correct half of the rent, but like this neither one nor the other... just the more convenient option. I don’t want to accuse your girlfriend of anything with the best will in the world but I have often heard this as a problem and believe that those who have dealt with it clearly and objectively, in my opinion, have the best relationships with each other. If it really has to do with love, then why does she take her higher salary only for herself and not share it? I believe this carries explosive risks and would absolutely advise against something like this. Beforehand, I would say goodbye to the house and make a complete fresh start, which is also nice. But I wouldn’t want that feeling.
I don’t find that at all, on the contrary. Simply just regulate things clearly and objectively, many people live like that and it works perfectly for them. I am a proponent of equality, therefore I don’t understand such things. I absolutely don’t want to be taken advantage of; that would be uncomfortable for me; therefore, I lack understanding for free rent… sorry. I have had something like that in life but I paid my half, quite simply. I understand your worries, they probably won’t just leave you again. I see no reason for you to get involved in something where you feel uncomfortable; neither should either of you. Therefore, I would mentally take the house off the table and sell/rent it out. You could also continue living there, but then at a proper rent; your girlfriend earns just as much or more than you… The many other things in life with children, unemployment and a thousand scenarios must always be "renegotiated" in the relationship since these cannot be planned beforehand. Another option could be a 60:40 ownership solution, reasonably corresponding to the current value.
For that, she (as far as I understand) initially took care of the child mostly by herself. Should she now offset her contribution against that? Or if she/he does more around the house, should that also be factored in? How far should it go?
Personally, I find it already difficult when married couples have separate accounts. But as I said, I’m probably from a different generation at 41.