knalltüte
2020-03-18 20:16:52
- #1
Something different: I find this formulation with the slash very ambiguous. Would there be a chance to shift the costs to the client, presumably the seller, if one tried? Assuming no additional contracts or documents were signed that are more explicit.
... I didn’t notice at all...
The seller of the property commissioned the broker with the "sale." That is certain.
Does that mean the seller is legally the "client"?
But we are each "leasehold holders"
So in one sentence the seller has to pay and the buyer.
Yes, so who now? (preferably no one!)