Is it feasible to buy a second house with a mortgage on the first house?

  • Erstellt am 2025-03-07 05:39:01

K a t j a

2025-03-10 11:14:11
  • #1

Well, before everyone starts painting everything too dark here, I would like to counter and put things into perspective. The loan is always backed by the house as value. If all else fails, you can also sell it again. Therefore, I am rather on the pro side if the opportunity is favorable.
 

Musketier

2025-03-10 11:20:17
  • #2


However, the right of residence massively restricts the buyer pool. Owner-occupiers want to move in immediately, and investors want to make money.
In addition, there may be the VFE and gift tax, and the ancillary purchase costs are also sunk.
Will much be left then?
 

nordanney

2025-03-10 11:20:35
  • #3
Yes and no. A house with a right of residence but no income is not a sure thing. However, there should be enough buffer in the value to be able to sell quickly with concessions.
 

MachsSelbst

2025-03-10 11:21:51
  • #4


If no child were involved, I would also say "Your problem, do it, what could happen..."

But with a 3-year-old child, I see it a bit differently. It doesn't help to be able to give your child a house on their 18th birthday if you had to live at welfare level for the 15 years before.
After deducting additional costs for your own house, the two loan installments, and some savings, there is 1,000 EUR left to live on. For everything.
With welfare benefits, you even end up with more at the end...

Even if you shouldn't shower your children with everything possible... you only have childhood once, you can't repeat it or make it up again.
 

Musketier

2025-03-10 11:25:51
  • #5


You are probably mistaken. It must be explicitly agreed upon; otherwise, only the consumption-based costs can be passed on at most.
 

nordanney

2025-03-10 11:32:28
  • #6
No. Actually not. According to the Building Code 1093, the provisions of usufruct apply. Among others, also 1041 - Maintenance
 

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