Fundamental questions about financing

In the annuity rate, the interest portion decreases monthly, meaning the interest is always calculated only on the current outstanding balance, while the repayment portion increases. Since in Germany the interest is calculated monthly in arrears, but the effective interest rate is stated p.a. according to the Price Indication Regulation, there is always a difference between the nominal and effective interest rates, even if no additional payments beyond the interest and repayment rate are made.

Source: Wiki

I would not start a legal dispute with a bank

HelpHelp, quick question, why did you just copy my text and write Source Wki underneath? Just for your information, because the text does not originate from any source like that. .

In the annuity payment, the interest portion decreases monthly, meaning the interest is always calculated only on the current outstanding principal, while the repayment portion increases. Since in Germany interest is calculated monthly in arrears, but the effective interest rate is expressed p.a. according to the Price Indication Regulation, there is always a difference between the nominal and effective interest rates, even if no additional payments beyond the interest and repayment rate are made.

Source: Wiki

I wouldn't start a legal dispute with a bank

I'll leave it as it is. However, the lower part is helpful.

HelpHelp I do understand it to pretend knowledge the posts have to be super duper long so that everyone can't stop being amazed.

Copy and paste from Wikipedia is enough.

So, that's enough now!! This can't possibly be true anymore!!

The source of this text is me, it has not been copied from anywhere and is from me, as it was written as the basis of every bank clerk apprenticeship, as assistance and an answer to the question of someone seeking help!

If that's the case, you can refer to Wikipedia or Google for every technical question.

This is really getting out of hand here, it’s almost like a witch hunt!!!

Regarding the other matter: Does the bank openly communicate the refusal to sell the property from own funds, that the purchase is only possible if the financing of the house is included, or is it openly communicated that the property will only be sold to you if the overall financing is done through the selling bank?

I was verbally informed openly in a conversation that the sale of the property is tied to the house financing.

If yes, is this in writing or verbally and above all, is this exactly stated in the sales exposé? Is it advertised that way as well?

I did not receive a sales exposé from the bank.
The properties were also not publicly advertised, e.g. online or through other channels.
I only stumbled upon it by chance when I asked the bank if they currently had properties for sale.

Basically, it is difficult because the bank cannot be dictated to whom it has to sell the property, and even if there were legal concerns, unfortunately it will not get you your property without taking financing through the selling bank.

And that bothers me a lot, that the bank, in addition to the already high price per square meter for me (200€/5,000 inhabitants village), also dictates the interest rate (+0.8% surcharge), plus the broker commission.

I was openly informed orally in a conversation that the sale of the property is tied to the house financing.

I did not receive a sales exposé from the bank. The properties were also not publicly advertised, e.g. online or through other channels. I only came across it by chance when I asked the bank if they currently had properties for sale.

And that also bothers me a lot, that the bank, in addition to the high price per square meter for me (200€/ 5000 inhabitants village), also dictates the interest rates (+0.8% surcharge), plus broker commission.

I can understand you very well.