The fixed interest period already expired in March and has since been running variable at a slightly higher interest rate.
The bank wants us to find another bank as soon as possible to take over the follow-up financing. I don’t understand why the bank doesn’t just let the loan run until 2018. After all, we always pay the installments on time. The current interest rate is about 5%.
Maybe the bank has something completely different in mind. The Schufa entry is still there until 1.2018; meaning the bank quite certainly knows that the OP cannot go anywhere else until then.
Variable interest rates, especially currently at 5%, are just perfect for the bank in these times for the OP.
Without wanting to immediately accuse the “evil bankers” of all sorts of things again, something along those lines also came to my mind... or even worse: The bank (or rather an employee) has had their eye on a nice house that they would like to acquire cheaply...
I hope for the OP that the bank is simply after cash. 5% is quite something...
The contract was not terminated either but simply not extended. There is hardly anything to be done against that, after all, there is contractual freedom, as I said.
Are the conspiracy theorists out again today?
Although since March the loan has been converted to a variable loan with a higher interest rate and the OP would also accept this until 2018, the bank clearly says that he should look for another institution. Since the OP has signaled his consent, the bank could just "let everything continue as it is and collect the high interest." But since it continues to tell the OP to find another bank, the theory of would be refuted.
“The potential employee of the bank, who according to the theory of [USER=25961]@andimann is pushing the termination/non-renewal, cannot be sure to get the bid in a free sale / foreclosure. Since the OP lives in Munich, there should be a whole line of buyers ready in a private sale and it would fetch well over 350,000 euros despite the age of 10 years (assumed fixed interest period). Thus, the chance of getting a house cheaply would be very low.
We don’t know what is in the Schufa.
Possibly another loan fell through, for whatever reason, e.g., two years ago. I don’t even want to accuse the OP of anything here (WARNING SPECULATION: Maybe there was a reversal of a purchase (possibly with ongoing legal dispute), whereby the credit taken out for it would actually be void. But since the purchase contract and loan contract may be separate agreements according to the T&Cs of the consumer financing bank or the legal dispute is not yet settled, the bank insists on the existence of the loan and the OP does not pay back because, from his point of view, the overall transaction is void.)
Whether we will learn the background of the Schufa entry is uncertain (it is probably nothing pleasant for the OP).