Financing volume as detailed planning to the bank / lump sum?

For the overall planning, non-value-increasing incidental construction costs are also interesting. So you should roughly have a ballpark figure regarding the magnitude.

So you have to see the whole package and calculate accordingly. But does a bank see an advantage or disadvantage in such a scenario when granting the offer? Or does it not matter and is it a toss-up? :)

I know, maybe a silly question, but I just don't understand it right now.

We have made a complete list of all costs and then offset the available (to be used) equity capital against it. The remainder was then the external capital requirement.

The bank then extracts the items that are important for determining the lending value.
In doing so, each bank apparently applies slightly different values.

As an example
Construction company 1 has included all construction insurances in their construction service description.
For construction company 2, insurances for the construction must be secured by the builder.
In total, the house including insurances costs the same amount in both cases.

If the bank now goes ahead and excludes the insurances and the corresponding equity capital for paying the insurances for construction company 2, the financing for construction company 2 would result in a slightly lower lending value.
Therefore, it is entirely possible that the bank includes this in the financing.

I would rather list it. The bank can exclude it on its own.

To answer 's question, it doesn't matter. Right pocket, left pocket.

Everything is always considered as a whole. That would be similar to asking whether it's better to spend the equity on the foundation or the roof.

For the bank itself, it only makes a marginal temporary difference. In the end, it doesn't matter.

Many thanks Toxic... ;)

One could possibly have interpreted some posts here differently. That's why my explicit question about it. Of course, it's better to have both (property and incidental construction costs), but often it's just not entirely possible.

Thanks

If the loan-to-value ratio is not exactly close to a threshold, difficult-to-calculate items can simply be omitted and covered from equity (which of course is then not stated as used equity).

Hello everyone,

after spending some more time on the topic and learning new things, I am bringing this thread back up and have a few more detailed questions.

Here is what I have learned so far:

[*]Repayment only starts after the entire loan amount has been drawn
[*]The bank releases a maximum of 10,000 EUR without proof
[*]For the remaining amount, commitment fees apply after the agreed period expires

[*]You cannot finance the kitchen

So I have adjusted my calculation accordingly, so that I do not delay repayment later because of an unbuilt garage or terrace. I have attached my calculation. Now to my questions:

[*]Is my calculation sufficient for the payout regarding the personal contributions, or does the bank want to see all the receipts for material costs before payout?
[*]How will the payout be handled in general? For the house, it follows the invoices according to the payment plan, but what about all the other things...?

[*]Can I finance positions already paid for (soil survey, surveyor, construction supervisor) retroactively and have the amount paid out to me?
[*]Are the items mortgage registration and consumption of electricity and water during the construction phase (2,500 EUR) financeable through the loan?

How would you do it? As you can see, around 50,000 EUR are still not covered by the financing because I cannot guarantee timely completion. Nevertheless, these are all things that make the house project complete for me.

Best regards, Redsonic