Fuchur
2022-01-26 18:01:51
- #1
Where do you get the statement that private consumption is excluded from the profit motive? According to all my information, it must indeed be taken into account. Of course, only to the extent of the "loss of earnings" and thus to be valued significantly lower than for VAT purposes. That is, exactly to the extent recorded in the income-expenditure statement. But that it is simply disregarded, I could not understand anywhere.Profit here narrowly means whether I come out ahead by selling electricity. But since the big profit occurs through self-consumption, any classic private system can quite easily be calculated as negative.