MrsAndMr
2022-06-25 09:50:36
- #1
Hello,
I would appreciate getting your assessment / experiences regarding the following situation:
- An architect bought a hillside property with an old building from the 60s, demolished the old building except for the basement level, and constructed a new building on it; since the new house is also somewhat larger, additional strip foundations were newly constructed according to static calculations (formally, the construction project was therefore a conversion and renovation of a single-family house)
- The architect actually planned and built the house for himself (i.e. architect = client), but since a divorce occurred during construction, the house is now to be sold; that is, the architect is now acting as the seller
- We are interested in purchasing, but the seller has now informed us that he wants to include in the notary contract that he does not want to be liable as the architect of the house with the corresponding architect’s liability (30 years); this liability/warranty is to be explicitly excluded
Is there anything objectionable about this procedure or is this "a typical approach"? As inexperienced prospective buyers, this statement initially unsettled us, in the sense of "Is there probably something wrong with the house?"
Thank you in advance for any assessment!
I would appreciate getting your assessment / experiences regarding the following situation:
- An architect bought a hillside property with an old building from the 60s, demolished the old building except for the basement level, and constructed a new building on it; since the new house is also somewhat larger, additional strip foundations were newly constructed according to static calculations (formally, the construction project was therefore a conversion and renovation of a single-family house)
- The architect actually planned and built the house for himself (i.e. architect = client), but since a divorce occurred during construction, the house is now to be sold; that is, the architect is now acting as the seller
- We are interested in purchasing, but the seller has now informed us that he wants to include in the notary contract that he does not want to be liable as the architect of the house with the corresponding architect’s liability (30 years); this liability/warranty is to be explicitly excluded
Is there anything objectionable about this procedure or is this "a typical approach"? As inexperienced prospective buyers, this statement initially unsettled us, in the sense of "Is there probably something wrong with the house?"
Thank you in advance for any assessment!