Musketier
2013-10-11 09:55:35
- #1
However, in the abstract example, the new building should not be on someone else’s property, but on the communal/co-ownership property, of which the builder himself owns half. I would be interested in how the Building Code is interpreted in that case. From experience, I know that such a house is not treated by the tax office as a building on someone else’s land.
The legal opinion is quite clear here. Every mm² of the land is divided according to the land shares. It is not the case that the left half of the land is mine and the right half is yours.
Here is an excerpt from Wikipedia about the Condominium Act:
The Civil Code (Building Code) does not recognize ownership of real parts of buildings and assigns all buildings erected on a plot of land as essential components of the land exclusively to the owner of that land (§ 94 Building Code), so that there can be no independent ownership of buildings and certainly not of individual apartments. Although §1093 of the Building Code provides for a residential right, this cannot fulfill the purpose of dividing a building into individual apartments (so-called separate ownership).
The regulations of the Building Code therefore proved to be too inflexible. After World War II, the need for housing forced the search for ways in which those seeking housing could participate in its financing while at the same time receiving a real value as owners. This possibility was created by the law in 1951.
To what extent such separate ownership would also be possible for entire buildings, I do not know.
However, since this declaration of division for condominium ownership would also have to be entered in the land register, I would, as you rightly said, insist on a complete division of the property.