boxandroof
2019-05-12 05:22:51
- #1
If there are no further agreements or prenuptial contracts, then the community of accrued gains already takes into account inheritances and assets of one or the other before the marriage.
Of course, one can also regulate this differently and more explicitly, which some have apparently done according to the answers. In the answers, I somehow don't see that taken into account, although that would probably be the typical case.
if someone likes to shop extravagantly for the cooking pot, then he pays...
One can do that. But what difference does it make "in the end" for one or the other without, for example, an agreed separation of property?
A joint account for joint purchases -> house, loan etc. should exist.
No, precisely that one should generally separate better in terms of accounts if one party contributes a larger share. Keyword: gift tax.