House heavily in debt, 50:50 shares - separation

  • Erstellt am 2017-02-04 13:49:28

Alex85

2017-02-04 20:13:33
  • #1
How long has the house been in possession now?

I would first have it checked how high a prepayment penalty would even be. If the house has been in possession for a few years already, it can be assumed that it was financed at a significantly higher interest rate. Therefore, it is quite conceivable that a prepayment penalty is significantly lower than initially assumed.

50K€ can in my opinion be managed, especially by two. If the lady herself, even when transferring her half for one euro, is not able to raise the necessary fees, I can understand where the problem lies... You can borrow 10K€ from any bank, some even have it as an overdraft facility. If that doesn’t work already... one should have just given up on the house, to put it bluntly. But well, that doesn’t help.
And here as well: trial makes wise Prices have risen, not fallen.
 

ypg

2017-02-04 20:39:20
  • #2
The bank does not care where the money comes from, the main thing is that the loan is serviced. You can also leave your feet under the table for a while. After 10 years, you have a special right of termination... then you can consider looking for another bank, of course alone. Then you can reshuffle the cards. My question, how long the loan runs, is still open.... could also be answered. It all depends on how the two separate. It could be peaceful and without dispute by mutual agreement. But if one wants a scandal, it becomes difficult. Payout of what? There is almost only debt present. The equity that was invested would have to be paid out... the few years that were paid in are roughly equivalent to rent - not much has been repaid, so for the sake of peace it might be overlooked. Regards
 

lastdrop

2017-02-04 21:05:20
  • #3


No, it's the opposite. An old high interest rate would mean high prepayment penalties at today's low interest rates.
 

Alex85

2017-02-04 22:32:04
  • #4


I must have had a knot in my head there
 

Payday

2017-02-05 11:10:51
  • #5

It has already been mentioned regarding the age of the house - it will be paid off in a good 2 years. I also don't need any "serves you right" posts, as these do not contribute in any way. And I just want to inform myself here for the two.

The current status is that they are now trying an official examination with the bank involving paperwork and the like, to get her released from the contract and for him to take over her half of the house. The €10,000 for property tax and notary fees are not the problem.
 

DG

2017-02-05 12:12:16
  • #6


You can calculate/argue like that, but that was their risk when signing the contract. If I read between the lines correctly, they would break even +/- zero, only the previously invested equity would be lost. But that's always the case when you finance maximally and have to sell again after a short time. The risk only becomes visibly real in these cases.



Depends. Here in LP, there is always demand for rental houses due to some large employers and the university because people come here for 2-5 years and more or less know that afterwards they will work somewhere else again. There are also landlords who specifically buy such properties multiple times, renovate them, and operate them purely as rental units. So it also depends on whether there is a market for it...



If I had the capital to easily pay for it and someone at the bank rejected that without checking, I would be back at the bank's secretary in 5 minutes requesting an appointment with his superior.



The €10,000 sounded to me so far as if that would indeed still be a problem, at least for one of them. What also doesn’t sound entirely plausible to me is the statement "he can easily pay" and the bank’s attitude. If you can easily pay, it would be settled within 5 minutes. The fact that the bank advisor sees it differently and paperwork is only just starting sounds to me as if it isn’t quite so easy to manage after all. The question is also … if it really is that easy to handle, why doesn’t he simply pay the full installment and buy her half?

Your argument that he would need €150,000 for that is actually not correct. The woman’s half is worth €150,000 minus (!!) the proportional loan amount, so more or less zero; otherwise, she would hardly agree to a purchase price of €1. In plain language, he effectively needs no equity to buy her share, except for notary and land register fees. The bank can hardly do anything against this except disallow the sale, which it would have to justify and would again only be able to do on account of his lack of creditworthiness.

This leads in circles; I believe if he really had the money, this would not be a problem at all.

It would be easier if one bites the bullet and sells at market price. After all, it is ready to move in immediately and practically new.

Best regards
Dirk Grafe
 

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