Hausbautraum20
2021-03-16 16:17:38
- #1
Thank you for your assessment. Why does it become simpler with marriage? I assume it's because a prenuptial agreement is mandatory in this constellation anyway?
Why is a prenuptial agreement mandatory there?
Everything acquired before the marriage remains separate property.
A marriage would, in terms of the community of accrued gains, clearly establish that Partner B acquires shares in the house if Partner B is already paying something for it.
I know two unmarried homeowners, but they then concluded correspondingly complex contracts to secure themselves.