Rollo83
2020-08-09 09:47:02
- #1
Yes, that sounds plausible. It's probably too naive to assume that after 15 years of marriage, you can divide something like that differently. For example, with the purchase receipts of the stocks or somehow the completion of the mortgage.
If we have children, we either combine the accounts or I simply top up the parental allowance my wife receives to the salary level she had before.
She can choose.
Don't worry, I'm just finding out whether there is a prenuptial agreement or not, and that comes from my wife who will bring exactly €0 into the marriage. By the way, I find that completely okay and not meant to be derogatory.
One more general question that I can actually answer myself. Even if everyone has their own account and own income, in marriage everything is pooled. Does that mean if partner 1 invests €1000 every month from their income in stocks and partner 2 spends their income every month and saves nothing, partner 2 will still be entitled to 50% of the monthly €1000 at the time of divorce?
According to my logic, YES, right?