Baukindergeld - Does it no longer have to be the first property ever acquired?

Did I understand correctly, the relevant date for a sale is the signed purchase contract. And for new construction, the date of the building permit?

Correct.

I don't understand the point behind it.

The goal is to bring families into homeownership who did not have any before. The purpose of the rule is therefore to prevent, as much as possible, people who are already homeowners and only want to "improve" their situation from claiming government subsidies (taxpayer money). Because that does not achieve the funding objective – if your old property is sold to a family, they already receive the Baukindergeld.

The goal is to bring families into homeownership who have not had any before. The purpose of the rule is therefore to prevent as far as possible that people who already own property and "only" want to improve it claim state subsidies (tax money). Because that does not achieve the funding goal - if your old property is sold to a family, they already receive the Baukindergeld.

but that is your own interpretation of the goal. No lofty thoughts are behind it.

So noble thoughts are not behind it

I have always interpreted it that way too. What do you think is behind it according to your knowledge?

So noble thoughts are not behind this

but? Let's imagine 10 good friends with houses. A builds a house and sells his to B. B sells his to C, who sells to D, ... In the end, 1 new house was built, but child construction subsidies were paid out 10 times.

Let's imagine 10 good friends with houses. A builds a house and sells his to B. B sells his to C, who sells to D,.... In the end, one new house was built, but Baukindergeld was paid out 10 times.

exactly. The Baukindergeld should have been restricted to new builds if something else was intended.

For that very reason, for example, the subsequent rules regarding sales between direct relatives were added. Some simply overdid it with the ping-pong selling.