Special repayment for rented property

I do think that the annual statement of the financing with the interest paid is sufficient to claim this with the tax office.

In the following years, the annual statement assigned to this property is sufficient

but the first time you need to present invoices that are compatible with the financing of the building without the land.

@ Allthewayup it only applies if rent is collected as with Teimo. For owner-occupied properties, you can shift as much credit as your credit advisor's back office allows.

For me, investing is now more fun than construction sites.

What surprises me a bit is that despite having an architect, there is money left over.

With 3.4% interest, I would definitely make special repayments and not gamble with the money on the stock market. Stock prices are highly overvalued and a big stock market crash is imminent.

Interesting statement - where do you get your knowledge from? When exactly is the big stock market crash supposed to happen? Wouldn't it be much more sensible with this knowledge to hold onto the money in order to buy cheap after the crash and fully participate in the subsequent upswing?

There are two topics here. 1. the tax aspect and 2. the proof of payment at the bank

1. From a tax law perspective, I would preliminarily claim, before consulting a tax advisor, that the loan should preferably not exceed the acquisition and production costs so that the interest can be fully claimed as income-related expenses. You know the production costs yourself. More interesting is probably the approach regarding the property. If the property was inherited or gifted, you legally step into the shoes of the predecessor from a tax perspective, and their acquisition costs are applied to you as fictitious acquisition costs.

Now it would have to be examined whether you can apply the loan only up to the amount of the production costs or also up to the amount of the fictitious acquisition costs. If you still have an exceeding amount, you can of course still try to apply it. However, there is a risk that the tax office will partially not recognize the costs.

2. If you had to submit all documents regarding the purchase to the bank so that they can verify the value, you would not get everything paid out anyway. If you do not need this, the issue would presumably be resolved.

Is it even possible to make so many special repayments? Often it is limited to 5% of the loan amount per year.

If you find the risk on the stock market too high, you can also take a middle path. Invest part and repay part as a special repayment.
Or you invest everything and every year you look anew: if a profit was made, you take out a part and repay. If the bond/ETF/fund/stocks are doing poorly at the moment, you stay invested.

In the following years, the annual statement assigned to this property is sufficient

but the first time, invoices on the table that are compatible with the financing of the building without the land.
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…
what surprises me a bit despite the architect, money left over

It may be that compatibility must be proven for the first time.

We only had performance phase 1-4 from the architect. The rest was self-contracting or also a lot of own work (extraordinarily much own work in relation to this forum). It was also not my first construction project.

There are two topics here.
1. The tax aspect and 2. The proof of disbursements at the bank

1.
From a tax law perspective, I would preliminarily say to the tax advisor that the loan should preferably not exceed the acquisition and production costs so that the interest can be fully claimed as income-related expenses.
You know the production costs yourself.
More interesting in this regard might be the treatment of the land. If the land was inherited or gifted, you step into the legal predecessor’s shoes for tax purposes and their acquisition costs are applied to you as fictitious acquisition costs.

Now one would have to check whether you can only apply the loan up to the amount of the production costs or also up to the amount of the fictitious acquisition costs.
If you still have an exceeding amount, you can of course still try to apply it. However, there is a risk that the tax office will partially disallow the costs.

2.
If you had to submit all receipts for the acquisition to the bank so that they can verify the value, you will not get everything paid out anyway.
If you do not need that, the issue would presumably be resolved.

1. The land was transferred to me by my father and until three years ago it was still agricultural land and was then integrated into a building area and developed at my own expense. That means here it might even be possible to claim the development costs?

Regarding 1.&2. invoices are not a problem.

1. The property was transferred by my father and was still agricultural land until three years ago, then it was incorporated into a building area and developed at my own expense. That means one could possibly even claim the development costs?

Transferred means gifted, right? My tax courses on this topic are already two decades ago, I am no longer working in a tax office, and I currently have no time to study because tax law regularly changes – so this is just a layperson’s opinion. From my point of view, the development costs and the original acquisition costs together represent your hypothetical acquisition costs for the property. This has no direct impact on depreciation, since land is not depreciated, but it would have effects in connection with determining the speculation period and calculating the speculative profit. For the deductibility of interest, I still see this as a (possible) reference value. Maybe the tax advisor also has other ideas, for example using the BR values from the expert committee as a reference value.