tom.too
2024-03-06 11:52:35
- #1
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Should I better ask here in the forum how to nicely calculate the market value of two properties in my favor? Seriously?! I’m not going to fool myself! I want to determine a value as objectively as possible, fully aware that appraisers can still significantly deviate from the values I calculate. In my situation, it’s possible that the other party (with opposing interests) could agree to my valuation and costs for authorized experts, among other things, might not even arise.
I have no idea what it has to do with taxes, banks, financing, separation of property, sale, etc., if I objectively want to determine a market value. I thank everyone for taking the time to read and respond and would prefer not to make this too lengthy.
>>> Forget the instructions on the internet. There really isn’t a simple formula.
Authorized experts must also specify exactly how they calculate the market value in a report. Regarding Property 1, I can’t really take much from the 2008 court appraisal in my opinion, as everything was vacant back then and it was only based on land size and building substance. It may be that the appraiser valued the property comparatively low back then, but now the property generates rental income and it should no longer be based on the building substance, but on income.
If you (nordanney) don’t know a simple formula, maybe another forum member does?
Property 2: I find the recommendation to look for comparable properties tedious and especially prone to errors. Other properties always have a different structural condition/size/energy consumption/ancillary costs, a different location, different land values, etc. If my land value is, for example, 50 €/m² and the area is 4,000 m², and in forced auctions I find appraisals with a land value of 250 €/m² and 400 m² area, is that the same or should my property be assigned another €100,000? How do I even evaluate the location? Isn’t that partly already priced into the land value? That’s too imprecise for me.
For this property I have an older reputable appraisal. Essentially, little has changed about the property. Of course, the building substance has aged, but things have also been renewed. For me, it is such that back then it was rightly assumed a remaining useful life of 70 years and that can be done again today. Also the location, transport connections, attractiveness of the city, etc., haven’t changed significantly. The property didn’t suddenly move from the middle of nowhere to a Berlin villa district. In this approximate calculation method I essentially only have to consider the time factor and can still add or subtract for "special circumstances" if there are any...
I have now found a house price index on Statistica. I hope it’s okay to attach it like this. A link is not allowed. The index base is 2015 with 100, in 2001 the house price was defined as 84.4, in 2022 as 162.9. When I calculate this in a rule of three so that 84.4 should be the base 100, the factor is 1.93. A house valued at €100,000 in 2001 would be valued at €193,000 today. Isn’t that a meaningful statement?
Nordanney, I still can’t understand why this shouldn’t be a good approach? Regarding Property 1, you also just shoot in the dark, estimating the market value at 7-8 times the annual rent without any further information about the property.
Should I better ask here in the forum how to nicely calculate the market value of two properties in my favor? Seriously?! I’m not going to fool myself! I want to determine a value as objectively as possible, fully aware that appraisers can still significantly deviate from the values I calculate. In my situation, it’s possible that the other party (with opposing interests) could agree to my valuation and costs for authorized experts, among other things, might not even arise.
I have no idea what it has to do with taxes, banks, financing, separation of property, sale, etc., if I objectively want to determine a market value. I thank everyone for taking the time to read and respond and would prefer not to make this too lengthy.
>>> Forget the instructions on the internet. There really isn’t a simple formula.
Authorized experts must also specify exactly how they calculate the market value in a report. Regarding Property 1, I can’t really take much from the 2008 court appraisal in my opinion, as everything was vacant back then and it was only based on land size and building substance. It may be that the appraiser valued the property comparatively low back then, but now the property generates rental income and it should no longer be based on the building substance, but on income.
If you (nordanney) don’t know a simple formula, maybe another forum member does?
Property 2: I find the recommendation to look for comparable properties tedious and especially prone to errors. Other properties always have a different structural condition/size/energy consumption/ancillary costs, a different location, different land values, etc. If my land value is, for example, 50 €/m² and the area is 4,000 m², and in forced auctions I find appraisals with a land value of 250 €/m² and 400 m² area, is that the same or should my property be assigned another €100,000? How do I even evaluate the location? Isn’t that partly already priced into the land value? That’s too imprecise for me.
For this property I have an older reputable appraisal. Essentially, little has changed about the property. Of course, the building substance has aged, but things have also been renewed. For me, it is such that back then it was rightly assumed a remaining useful life of 70 years and that can be done again today. Also the location, transport connections, attractiveness of the city, etc., haven’t changed significantly. The property didn’t suddenly move from the middle of nowhere to a Berlin villa district. In this approximate calculation method I essentially only have to consider the time factor and can still add or subtract for "special circumstances" if there are any...
I have now found a house price index on Statistica. I hope it’s okay to attach it like this. A link is not allowed. The index base is 2015 with 100, in 2001 the house price was defined as 84.4, in 2022 as 162.9. When I calculate this in a rule of three so that 84.4 should be the base 100, the factor is 1.93. A house valued at €100,000 in 2001 would be valued at €193,000 today. Isn’t that a meaningful statement?
Nordanney, I still can’t understand why this shouldn’t be a good approach? Regarding Property 1, you also just shoot in the dark, estimating the market value at 7-8 times the annual rent without any further information about the property.