Melusine
2012-08-10 13:47:19
- #1
Hello,
we already signed a contract for the purchase of a property from a developer last year and by now we know that quite a few things went wrong.
Before signing the contract, we wanted to apply for a KfW loan for our house, which according to the developer's statement should be at least KfW70, through our financing bank. The developer then said that he had already applied for this loan and that it would not be possible for us to receive the same loan for the same property again.
After that, there were some correspondences between our bank and the developer’s financing bank stating that we could take over his loan. However, the interest rate conditions were not really attractive to us, so we decided against it.
Recently, I learned two things: first, that the developer could have repaid his loan directly upon sale and we could have applied for our own loan; and second, that although the developer had applied for KfW funds at the time, he was unable to provide the required proof and therefore did not receive any funding.
My question now is whether it might still be possible to get a loan retrospectively. Somehow, no one feels responsible for us anymore; neither the banks nor the developer respond.
It would be nice if someone here could at least help me a little.
Best regards Melusine
we already signed a contract for the purchase of a property from a developer last year and by now we know that quite a few things went wrong.
Before signing the contract, we wanted to apply for a KfW loan for our house, which according to the developer's statement should be at least KfW70, through our financing bank. The developer then said that he had already applied for this loan and that it would not be possible for us to receive the same loan for the same property again.
After that, there were some correspondences between our bank and the developer’s financing bank stating that we could take over his loan. However, the interest rate conditions were not really attractive to us, so we decided against it.
Recently, I learned two things: first, that the developer could have repaid his loan directly upon sale and we could have applied for our own loan; and second, that although the developer had applied for KfW funds at the time, he was unable to provide the required proof and therefore did not receive any funding.
My question now is whether it might still be possible to get a loan retrospectively. Somehow, no one feels responsible for us anymore; neither the banks nor the developer respond.
It would be nice if someone here could at least help me a little.
Best regards Melusine