House purchase: Sale before the expiry of 10 years - Right of first refusal

If the house were so easy to sell, why doesn't he sell it at such a high price that he could repay the financing including VE? Please free yourselves from the thought that you are making a super bargain. Nobody has anything to give away.

What I don't understand.
He only has to pay something to the municipality if he somehow makes a profit from the matter, right?

But he doesn't make any profit at all. If you repay the loan, he gives you such a great price, etc., then he doesn't earn a cent and gets off lightly. Why should he then have to pay 90,000 to the municipality?

Do rent-to-own or something similar. Somehow you can probably bridge the time?!

I wonder if the wife still has a right of first refusal?
I wanted to mention that because I immediately thought of it when I saw the headline...

They divided everything after the divorce (like no idea).

Once again. That is also our problem, since the seller does not want to sell if he then has costs that he cannot cover!
The sale is transparent and the seller will not go through with the deal if he is almost certainly insolvent afterward. (It is not that far yet and ideally he wants to prevent this by the quick sale)

However, he could also rent out the house (2-family) and move into a smaller apartment himself

He goes to the open market with the property and demands the price he owes the bank + penalty to the bank + payment to the municipality (and he will get this because the property is worth that much). That way he would also be in the clear and could avoid insolvency

What does he get out of it? As described above, he comes out of this story with no profit in both cases.

The aspect of the impending insolvency is only relevant for the decision of the municipality.

There are also the "super bargains" when someone from the circle of acquaintances is in financial distress and has to sell!!

I don’t have to free myself from that thought, we are not dumb either.. there are simply the "super bargains"

Demand increase in the value of the property

Now that we are close to buying, of course he doesn’t want to let us down and is now backing down.

If the woman is no longer listed in the land register, a sale has already taken place.

If he doesn’t sell, he will become insolvent. So what is all this about?

Apparently, he can’t do it, otherwise he would do it.

If the house is worth that much, he could also ask for more and would be a winner. But he doesn’t, because he doesn’t get the price. Keyword: bargain.
How

If you believe all this and know so much, then why don’t you know the facts and ask so many questions here?

The decision of the municipality is totally irrelevant. What does the municipality care about this?

I thought he doesn’t have to sell at all. He could also comfortably rent the two-family house. So what now?

That’s what laymen always believe...

How the purchase is processed is totally irrelevant to the municipality. They look at the old land value and the current one. The difference is profit. Period.

How kind of him. Maybe he will also come down a little bit on the price because you are so nice?

Phew... You really are a difficult case