Construction financing - is it possible to reduce the interest rate?

  • Erstellt am 2018-01-14 18:46:32

Alex85

2018-01-16 05:08:01
  • #1
I’m not proving anything to you. I am well aware that publicly accessible sources are no good to you. You immediately dismissed them again.

I can only say that in this country, accounts with significantly worse scores get credit cards, mobile phone contracts, consumer loans.
A 98, which is about where I am currently, is sufficient for high six-figure loan amounts, by the way.
Not at all theory on the slide rule, but practice.
 

toxicmolotof

2018-01-16 08:17:02
  • #2
I love people who want to explain my job to me. Just because someone writes something on their homepage doesn’t mean it’s always true in every case. And here is such a case, because the Schufa score is suitable (and intended) for short contract durations and low credit volumes at once. Not for a construction loan and therefore can at best serve as a first indicator.

There is a tiny difference between a 2-year phone contract and a construction loan with a term of 10 (or a total of 30) years.

And the amount of the loan and one’s own creditworthiness only have limited connection, provided that the debt service capacity, the collateral, and the risk premium are appropriate. I have certainly been saying this here for three years.

Your six-part financing, which I congratulate you on, unfortunately does not help here.
 

Alex85

2018-01-16 08:25:46
  • #3
I don't want to explain your job to you. I don't care about your job. I don't even see it in Tapatalk, I only know it because of the long membership. My impression is simply that you like to present your experience as universally valid. Often with conversation stoppers like "this is my job so just believe it," "do the math" although it's impossible due to lack of data, or "whatever is on some website is nonsense anyway." That's not how discussion works or at least it's unpleasant. Just because someone writes something in a forum doesn't mean it's always true in every case.
 

toxicmolotof

2018-01-16 09:35:35
  • #4
I am not just sharing my experience here, but proven methodological content from practice that one learns during studies, professional life, or relevant specialized seminars. Percentage and probability calculations work in Flensburg to Berchtesgaden just as they do in Tokyo or New York.

And a failure probability of 1% p.a. may seem acceptable over 1 or 2 years, but over a 30-year commitment, the calculation looks different.
 

HilfeHilfe

2018-01-16 12:33:40
  • #5


Funny statement. That’s why the score is taken 0.0 into consideration by mortgage lenders :-) *Sarcasm off*
 

toxicmolotof

2018-01-16 13:04:40
  • #6
It's not that funny. And not so trivial.

There are banks that don't use this score, but other scores instead. Or their own systems or even no system at all.

Even Schufa doesn't have just this one score, but various scores for different purposes.

But let's stick with the mortgage lenders.

For which part of the mortgage is the score relevant? On the one hand, maybe to execute the death sentence directly, meaning negative attributes destroy the score, or for the unsecured portion of the mortgage. It starts at 60% loan-to-value, has noticeable effects at 80%, and beyond 100% it works completely.

First, debt service ability and collateral valuation come into play, and only when the latter is no longer sufficient does the creditworthiness assessment of the borrower come into effect, not considering knockout criteria here.

With the Barclays loan (blanko), of course, it looks different.

But somehow all this doesn't really help the OP much more.
 

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