nordanney
2024-04-15 14:30:57
- #1
Fair is probably fair.Unlike the others, I don't see the matter as so dramatic. It is fair for both sides if the defects are listed
Yes, it can. Because it assumes a defect-free property. Age-typical signs of wear are taken into account through the age-related depreciation. But here it is about specific structural damages that are named. Thus, a deterioration of the property. And then the bank may terminate. As always: talking helps. But not only when the horse has already bolted. Common sense already says that if structural damages appear in the purchase contract (and according to OP not only moisture and mold but also other defects that are not even mentioned here), everyone really stumbles over that and wonders whether it is even a habitable wreck or whether hundreds of thousands of euros in renovation costs are necessary (exaggeratedly formulated).If the bank waives an appraisal, it cannot later terminate the loan agreement,