goubilas
2017-12-13 22:05:03
- #1
If the mother buys the entire property (for instance with the city’s condition), where does this clause go in the contract for a further (separate) subdivision? You are buying from your mother, so what does the city have to do with it?
As I already said, you really can't be fooled, I should have written down the whole background story, but I thought it would be rather boring.
Since the mother lives on site, she did receive the property, but from the beginning it was planned to build 2 semi-detached houses.
Immediately after the allocation of the property, we informed the local municipality that we would like to subdivide the property.
This was then approved by the municipality and thus a surveying office was commissioned by the notary.
Now that everyone owns their own half as planned, we must also comply with the regulations and requirements.
In plain language, the property belongs half to the mother and half to "soon" us!
And the date for the notary will be communicated to us soon; both parties will then officially sign for their half.
If we had applied from the south for one of the properties in the north, we would have received a direct rejection. Because only residents who have been living and working there for several years have a claim, understandable!
Hello goubilas
Here’s another example: you build the house, move in, have a great job around the corner. Now your company moves to Munich and puts you in the position to either come with them or be fired. What now? A €30,000 contractual penalty that the city slaps on you. I rather think that this clause has little substance.
Steven
That’s the crucial point: if it really comes down to it, I am still working in the south and I get threatened because of that and a lawsuit arises, I will have to argue that, for professional reasons, I currently cannot move as otherwise we could face financial difficulties, etc.
You have now given me the idea to seek advice from a specialist lawyer. I plan to do this before the notary appointment.