Tile base in the wet area suddenly not up to standard

Malervlies ist aber keine Tapete.

Now you're being pedantic. :) But I also believe you are wrong, because Malervlies is the stuff on the floor to protect it from paint, plaster, etc. The word is just used incorrectly. The wall covering that is probably meant is actually called non-woven wallpaper.

Wait, but we have walls in these rooms that are intended for wallpapering. What else are they supposed to be? Raw unfinished drywall walls? On un-tiled walls, Q3 is skimmed with painter's fleece wallpaper and painted.....So for me, this is a wall intended for wallpapering.

No!

If I were really tough now, I could say they should run a row of wall tiles along the floor. Because that is included in the contract for work.... haha

You say it yourself: in your contract for work, all walls in your bathrooms are tiled. Therefore, no base tiles are planned here either, because they are simply not necessary.

But now you come and say: I waive tiling on bathroom walls b and c... that's just stuffy, no one has that. I want fleece or whatever instead. Make me an offer for this or charge me accordingly.

What do you think: does a tiled wall now become a wall intended for wallpapering? Just because you removed the tiling on two walls item?

Still: He could already set the base. Saves wall tiles. He wouldn't lose anything there. Isn't he open to that? Karsten

You say it yourself: in the contract for work, all walls in your bathrooms are tiled. Therefore, no base tiles are planned here, because they are simply not necessary.

No, you rather see it wrong, I did not write that our contract for work states that all walls in the bathroom are tiled. We only have a certain amount of m² of wall tiles listed in the contract for work, moreover, it was and is clear to all parties involved that the amount of wall tiles with 50m² will definitely not be enough for all 3 bathrooms, so there automatically results untiled areas in the bathrooms.

No, you are rather mistaken, I did not write that our contract states that all walls in the bathroom are tiled. Our contract only specifies a certain amount of m² of wall tiles, moreover, it was and is clear to all involved that the amount of wall tiles of 50m² will definitely not be sufficient for all 3 bathrooms, so this automatically results in untiled areas in the bathrooms.

No, you are rather mistaken, I did not write that our contract states that all walls in the bathroom are tiled. Our contract only specifies a certain amount of m² of wall tiles, moreover, it was and is clear to all involved that the amount of wall tiles of 50m² will definitely not be sufficient for all 3 bathrooms, so this automatically results in untiled areas in the bathrooms.

Interesting discussion

The developer / general contractor knew the plans at the time of contract signing. Thus, un-tiled walls were already clearly visible in the bathroom? If no additional agreement was made in the construction contract, the scope of work description applies and in my opinion, you are fully in the right here.