Property purchase - speculation tax

  • Erstellt am 2018-12-09 16:08:32

KSchmidtke

2018-12-13 21:16:02
  • #1
Attention: The agreement of an option is considered a SALE within the meaning of the capital gains tax. Others have also tried this and have failed. If it were that simple, then capital gains tax would never be a problem.
If you wish, just get in touch, and I will gladly send a few court rulings as well.

Regards,

Kerstin
 

nordanney

2018-12-13 23:29:15
  • #2
Sorry to have to correct you. The ruling of the BFH from 2015 (which you probably mean as the most recent precedent-setting judgment) or the statements do not correspond to your claims: The BFH adds that, exceptionally, even a legally binding sales offer can be regarded as a disposal if the sale is economically already completed by the offer through the transfer of possession, risk, as well as benefits and burdens. The pure option, without any obligation, does not fall under this. Of course, the arrangement must be legally properly accompanied and formulated.
 

KSchmidtke

2018-12-14 00:03:26
  • #3
Hi Nordanney,

here I agree with you. The purely one-sided offer is not binding.

Regards,

Kerstin
 

Mottenhausen

2018-12-14 09:53:02
  • #4


No, you have misunderstood that. Even a purchase option accepted by either party is not a sale, insofar as the future buyer does not already become a resident/user of the property before the actual purchase.
 

KSchmidtke

2018-12-14 10:30:35
  • #5
: Please provide the source (that would be new to me).

In the triggering of the speculation tax, the agreement transaction is decisive and not the transfer transaction/deed of conveyance. A mutual option is an "agreement" and has already been decided accordingly by numerous financial courts.

Regards,

Kerstin
 

Mottenhausen

2018-12-14 11:35:42
  • #6
Then I do not understand the difference between "legally binding sales offer" in nordanneys' quote and "The purely unilateral offer is not binding" in your response.
 

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