I see that differently as well. The position exists on both sides, but it changes the loan-to-value ratio,
No, because the value of the property (not yours, but the bank's) does not change. The loan amount also does not change, since the ancillary costs have already been paid. Thus, LTV and loan-to-value ratio remain the same. Thousands of cases in my nearly 20 years of practice ;-)
If we assume a functioning market, then the amount a buyer is willing to pay minus ancillary costs is the purchase price that flows to the seller.
That is your calculation, but not the appraiser's calculation regarding market value/loan value. Therefore, unfortunately irrelevant for the bank. P.S. To what extent do 0.75% of the purchase price actually affect your loan value (that is roughly the notary costs for the purchase)? The loan value is an estimate anyway, just like the market value. If you knew what kind of appraisals I see daily...