House purchase with full financing / hardly any equity / option: inheritance with debts?

I suggest quickly coming down to 100% financing and otherwise leaving it be. Before the mother gifts the house or has it registered as collateral, wouldn't it be enough if the mother gifted you the incidental purchase costs? 13% of the purchase price would be just over €70,000.

You have now stated an income of €6,500 with expenses of €3,000. Has the rest so far always gone into consumption and cars? Are you planning to have children who will reduce the income? Would you like to tell me something about the vehicle collection?

The most obvious thing for most would probably be to sell the cards, then everything is fine. You should actually be able to save quite a bit if you restrain yourself a bit in consumption. Save until you at least get below 100%?

Of course, the higher interest is due to the circumstances. Where does the money go? All into cars? No children planned?

what if the mother gifts you the incidental purchase costs? 13% of the purchase price would be just over €70,000.

Yes, moms always have money of unknown amount under their pillows

But seriously: why should the mother give away her house? That is her retirement provision... furthermore, gifting to very well-earning children...

Hehe, aren't moms willing to take out a 70,000€ loan for a child and pay it off themselves? That would be better and easier than directly gifting a house worth 220,000€ and still paying the rest to the dear child as rent.

Oh well, what do I know... I'm just a heartless father who makes all the kids wait until the inheritance.

Hello everyone, thank you very much for your explanations and hints. Of course, we don’t want anything to be "given" to us; naturally, mother should continue living in the house, but due to her advanced age and the fact that in a few years she will no longer have the income she currently has (then pension...), she wouldn’t stand a chance to pay off the remaining amount of the house anyway.

Therefore, our idea was to have the house "given" to us, but then of course to subsidize and pay it off while she can (and wants to) continue living there for a smaller amount.

The question is: Could this possibly be an "incentive" for the banks?

Because in that case, only the net salary would be the basis for a loan amounting to €550,000 (price of the house) + €50,000 incidental purchase costs. Poor conditions in that regard.

If we took over the house, we would have more "debt" overall, but at least a market value of €400,000 less the outstanding loan amounting to €180,000.