What if I am already interested in houses in advance, conclude a purchase contract for a house on the condition that I myself (!) have to find a plot of land within period X. Then the contract for the house would have been concluded beforehand, but it would still not be a tied selling?
Apart from the fact that it is very unwise to commit to a house contract without land, that would be a normal procedure, so not a tied selling. As the word tied selling already says: somehow the construction company has to be linked with the land. Instead of tied selling, one could also say linked selling. Just a bit of scheming ;)