DG
2016-06-15 11:27:31
- #1
If he is indeed the usufructuary (I read it differently), then these are also assessable incomes for his bank. I agree with you there. But it reads differently.
The houses belong half to my brother and half to me.
Belong = ownership.
However, 1/3 of the houses belonged to my mother and 1/3 to my uncle.
Both shares were gifted equally to my brother and me
with lifelong usufruct.
1/3 + 1/3 = 2/3. Missing from 100% ... 1/3. Who might own the last third?
In fact, I am entitled to 1/6 of the current rental income.
Voilà - the last third or 2/6 have been found.
By the way. No bank is allowed to credit income if it goes to someone else. Nothing more and nothing less is to be considered here.
Please think again, Nordanney. A childless couple, both civil servants, with over €4,000 net income AND about €15,000 annual income from VuV from a mortgage-free property worth around €3 million, which, via the usufruct (mortality table! annually increasing capitalized share of the brothers!) will eventually belong 50% each to the brothers, comes to you and you say – sorry, but we unfortunately cannot consider this.
The client is out of your office before you finish the sentence, that should be clear to you. This results simply from the consideration that the family could realize €3 million in cash by selling, both brothers could pay €600K each per property out of petty cash and still have €1.8 million left to supplement the mother and uncle’s pension. Then your bank makes zero from the deal and both brothers have a house.
You realize yourself that something doesn’t add up, right?
Regards
Dirk Grafe