taschenonkel
2019-07-22 11:03:17
- #1
Hello everyone,
I have a question about a pedestrian and vehicular right of way to be registered in the land register. My wife and I want to buy a house that previously consisted of a residential building, 3 garages, and an attached medical practice. In front of it is a shared parking lot/access road. The subdivision has already been carried out. We want to buy the left two parts (marked in red in the picture). The medical practice next door remains the property of the seller and is still rented to a general practitioner.
The seller now wants to register a pedestrian and vehicular right of way for the upper part (parking lot) of the property I want to buy. The subdivision of the properties is exactly halfway through the courtyard driveway. The medical practice shall be the dominant property, my part of the property the servient one.
Question: Do I have any disadvantages related to this, or should I try to insist on a "gentlemen's agreement" so that the right is not registered in the land register? Should I also have such a right registered for the right part of the neighboring parking lot? I own 2 of the 3 garages.
I have a question about a pedestrian and vehicular right of way to be registered in the land register. My wife and I want to buy a house that previously consisted of a residential building, 3 garages, and an attached medical practice. In front of it is a shared parking lot/access road. The subdivision has already been carried out. We want to buy the left two parts (marked in red in the picture). The medical practice next door remains the property of the seller and is still rented to a general practitioner.
The seller now wants to register a pedestrian and vehicular right of way for the upper part (parking lot) of the property I want to buy. The subdivision of the properties is exactly halfway through the courtyard driveway. The medical practice shall be the dominant property, my part of the property the servient one.
Question: Do I have any disadvantages related to this, or should I try to insist on a "gentlemen's agreement" so that the right is not registered in the land register? Should I also have such a right registered for the right part of the neighboring parking lot? I own 2 of the 3 garages.