Pinky0301
2020-10-26 15:28:07
- #1
Isn't it the case that the city simply enters into the purchase contract? That is, buyer and seller notarized by the notary. Then the city decides whether to buy at the price agreed upon in the purchase contract. So it should neither result in less money for the seller nor higher costs for the buyer. Hopefully, the buyer will not have to cover the notary fees for the city. I can't explain what the seller objects to. Maybe ignorance of how the whole process works?