Tassimat
2021-09-13 08:41:13
- #1
Certainly, because it results in a "housing advantage," regardless of whether married or not, right? But is the income even high enough? (see last paragraph)The house becomes "too big" for a "normal" family (not trying to sound arrogant) – should this have any impact regarding parental support.
Without the woman being listed in the land register, I would never recommend that the woman sign the loan contract. Because even after a separation, the woman remains liable with income and assets for a house that belongs to her 0%. Whoever signs something like that is beyond help.What also interests me a lot is whether there is a way to represent the matter cleanly without a land register entry. A question that often comes up: the loan contract only in the man’s name? Although then I am uncertain how this should be represented properly – in case of a separation, only one person is left with the debt.
Well, currently 40% decide that "forever" is too long. But it always only happens to the others ;) But now seriously: Don’t you only have to pay starting from €100,000 gross income of the child, regardless of the spouse? Is that much actually earned when no equity is available at all?If you marry, it is usually forever