Property debt-free - Loan on man?

  • Erstellt am 2021-09-13 06:45:38

Tassimat

2021-09-13 08:41:13
  • #1
Certainly, because it results in a "housing advantage," regardless of whether married or not, right? But is the income even high enough? (see last paragraph) Without the woman being listed in the land register, I would never recommend that the woman sign the loan contract. Because even after a separation, the woman remains liable with income and assets for a house that belongs to her 0%. Whoever signs something like that is beyond help. Well, currently 40% decide that "forever" is too long. But it always only happens to the others ;) But now seriously: Don’t you only have to pay starting from €100,000 gross income of the child, regardless of the spouse? Is that much actually earned when no equity is available at all?
 

Wiesel29

2021-09-13 08:42:46
  • #2


Congratulations to your wife. If she has to pay, it means she earns more than 100k gross per year.
There was a reform in 2020. How much you earn together is completely irrelevant. Only your wife's income counts.
Any average lawyer should be able to dissect the letter in 10 minutes if her gross salary is below that.
 

Scout

2021-09-13 08:43:18
  • #3
Since the property already belongs to one person, you should establish an ownership ratio. So let's say you pay half for the house, and the land accounts for half of the price of the land, then that would be 1/3 to 2/3.

Then one "sells" the other 1/3 of the land by registering this 1/3 in the land register. For the tax office, this is considered a gift, which has a very low allowance for unmarried couples. However, it can also be done after marriage, then the allowance is considerable.
 

Scout

2021-09-13 08:51:39
  • #4
You do know that this has changed since the beginning of the year? Since then, the so-called [Family Member Relief Act] applies: children with an [annual gross income of less than 100,000 euros] are no longer obligated to provide maintenance to their parents. The decisive factor is the annual income, not the child's total assets. That means only children with an annual income of more than 100,000 euros are generally obligated to support their parents in need of care. And here, AFAIR, the rule applies that children are only considered with their own income, but not that for married couples the income is simply divided by two, so the higher earner would indirectly have to cover the care of the parents-in-law!
 

nordanney

2021-09-13 09:11:31
  • #5

He sells his half of the land share to her. She must (somehow) raise her share. Then joint ownership and joint construction financing. Alternatively, you don’t divide at all and he remains 100% owner. Then he must also take on 100% of the financing.
 

Musketier

2021-09-13 09:13:42
  • #6
Is this still the old or the current status regarding parental support? Parental support was reformed in 2020. The income limit is now at 100K€ for the child. Only when the 100K€ gross annual income is exceeded is the ability to pay calculated, and the partner’s income must also be taken into account there. (Note: layperson’s knowledge) PS: Scout was faster
 

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