Multi-family house without spouse involvement - ownership question

  • Erstellt am 2021-05-03 10:23:37

ypg

2021-05-04 09:04:39
  • #1
The original post is actually understandable,



That less ;)
 

Martial.white

2021-05-04 10:03:58
  • #2
True :D that was nothing.

I'll try again:



The question must be: What does "It should run under both" mean for the OP, and subsequently our advice should be:

Please both have a lawyer explain this matter to you at the same time, what it means and what further steps there are with all advantages and disadvantages.

The call for a marriage contract is probably actually premature, but it can be a result of the counseling.
I don't think we can unravel this here in the forum.
 

Grundaus

2021-05-04 10:33:57
  • #3
There is a lot wrong here! The property belongs to the person who is listed in the land register and thus also the house. Nothing is separate. Anyone else is not an owner and will not become one in the event of a divorce or by paying off the loan. Only through inheritance, if you die, does she acquire a share of the community of heirs. What the wife is entitled to in a divorce is a gain compensation, but that is always money and no say in the house and certainly not ownership.
 

ypg

2021-05-04 10:39:25
  • #4
That's how I think too, it is! (Damn 5 words rule here)
 

Martial.white

2021-05-04 10:50:06
  • #5
Thank you for the clarification, I was wrong.

The money for the equalization of accrued gains must then come from somewhere upon separation, but if there is not enough cash available, what happens then?

However, we have been discussing since yesterday without :) and I fear he now has more questions than at the beginning. I would suggest we wait and see.
 

nordanney

2021-05-04 10:59:23
  • #6
That is a luxury problem... (word five...)
 
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