Altai
2019-10-07 10:12:23
- #1
I was once in the position of your girlfriend, only that the man already brought the house with him. We built and renovated together, the land register and loan were only in his name. And we were not married and did not arrange anything. I sometimes paid rent, worked part-time or not at all because of the children (parental leave with parental allowance, briefly also without any income). So classic behind-the-scenes support. After the separation, I was left with nothing at all, although surely my commitment also made it possible for him to pay off his house. Not to mention that I kept the house and garden in good shape...
So I really think it's good that you want to make an arrangement that enables her to have a share. I wish you all the best so that it never comes to that. And of course it is important to settle things now, because when the case arises, reason often no longer applies...
If you marry after you have bought the property and the house is standing, she participates, as far as I know, "only" in any increase in the value of the property. But at least... in my case, that would have been quite some tens of thousands of euros, which I could have used very well... I would see that as the minimum, even without a marriage certificate.
The maximum would be dividing the respective house value minus the equity you contributed alone and the liabilities equally between both. (Example: House 700k€, equity 150k€, loan 350k€ - so she receives (700-150-350)/2=100k€). Then you could actually get married too. What are the full-time income ratios? Maybe you want to weight the distribution here as well - e.g., if you earn twice as much, then division 2/3 to 1/3. I would also find that fair, as it disregards the child-related income reduction of the woman but still takes the different incomes into account.
So I really think it's good that you want to make an arrangement that enables her to have a share. I wish you all the best so that it never comes to that. And of course it is important to settle things now, because when the case arises, reason often no longer applies...
If you marry after you have bought the property and the house is standing, she participates, as far as I know, "only" in any increase in the value of the property. But at least... in my case, that would have been quite some tens of thousands of euros, which I could have used very well... I would see that as the minimum, even without a marriage certificate.
The maximum would be dividing the respective house value minus the equity you contributed alone and the liabilities equally between both. (Example: House 700k€, equity 150k€, loan 350k€ - so she receives (700-150-350)/2=100k€). Then you could actually get married too. What are the full-time income ratios? Maybe you want to weight the distribution here as well - e.g., if you earn twice as much, then division 2/3 to 1/3. I would also find that fair, as it disregards the child-related income reduction of the woman but still takes the different incomes into account.