hampshire
2020-06-07 13:02:11
- #1
It is very simple. The applicable VAT depends on the invoice date and is independent of the payment. The initial idea still does not work for (at least) 2 reasons: 1. The invoicing company must remit the calculated VAT immediately. This means that with a very long payment term, the VAT amount is financed in advance. Interest and liquidity burdens are so high that companies will only reluctantly engage in this on a broad scale. 2. As a client, accepting an invoice without objection before the service is rendered carries a risk. Taking this risk for a few percent is not advisable. Not only because the contractual partner can delay, but also because the money can be claimed if the contractual partner goes insolvent. The kitchen example of ordering in the second half of the year and delivering later is also simple: The immediate down payment is subject to the temporarily reduced tax, the final invoice in one or two years to the then applicable VAT. Again here: paying completely for a kitchen without having it is a false saving.