interessent2
2017-01-08 10:42:14
- #1
First of all, I would like to thank everyone for their answers/contributions/advice.
As can be seen, several days have passed and the situation has changed somewhat.
I do not think a new topic would be useful, so I will ask my question regarding the new situation here.
My mother owns two properties.
The one we live in is to remain in possession.
The other property will be sold.
I would like to point out that it is my wish (merely my wish! Whether it would be feasible I cannot judge!) that my mother’s assets play no role in the further considerations.
To get the property we live in into shape, a loan of X euros is needed.
I want and am to be the borrower. The property, whose exact value of course still has to be determined, is to serve as collateral.
Would this be feasible at all, assuming the property had the value of X+?
The background of the question is: can a property that is not owned by the borrower serve as collateral?
Or would my income and liabilities here also be the “death sentence”?
A “merging” of liabilities and “mortgage” would not be possible and also not advisable, if I understood correctly?
Apart from financing, I have a very general question:
So far, I have not received uniform experiences from various “builders/renovators.”
Some can freely dispose of the money, others only receive partial payments and must always explain before each payment what they plan to do in the next phase or what they have achieved with the last payment before the next installment is paid.
I am grateful for any advice and any answers.
Only I would like to point out: I am not an expert in the financial sector. If I knew anything, I could answer my questions myself and would not have to bother you.
I wish you all a nice Sunday.
PS: I forgot to mention that when concluding a loan agreement, insurances such as, for example, term life insurance are of course taken out (in case that might be of any interest).
As can be seen, several days have passed and the situation has changed somewhat.
I do not think a new topic would be useful, so I will ask my question regarding the new situation here.
My mother owns two properties.
The one we live in is to remain in possession.
The other property will be sold.
I would like to point out that it is my wish (merely my wish! Whether it would be feasible I cannot judge!) that my mother’s assets play no role in the further considerations.
To get the property we live in into shape, a loan of X euros is needed.
I want and am to be the borrower. The property, whose exact value of course still has to be determined, is to serve as collateral.
Would this be feasible at all, assuming the property had the value of X+?
The background of the question is: can a property that is not owned by the borrower serve as collateral?
Or would my income and liabilities here also be the “death sentence”?
A “merging” of liabilities and “mortgage” would not be possible and also not advisable, if I understood correctly?
Apart from financing, I have a very general question:
So far, I have not received uniform experiences from various “builders/renovators.”
Some can freely dispose of the money, others only receive partial payments and must always explain before each payment what they plan to do in the next phase or what they have achieved with the last payment before the next installment is paid.
I am grateful for any advice and any answers.
Only I would like to point out: I am not an expert in the financial sector. If I knew anything, I could answer my questions myself and would not have to bother you.
I wish you all a nice Sunday.
PS: I forgot to mention that when concluding a loan agreement, insurances such as, for example, term life insurance are of course taken out (in case that might be of any interest).