Construction financing abroad (Poland)

If your father pays your rent, I see no problem. Otherwise, you only have costs on your hands. Who pays, for example, for necessary renovations on the mortgaged property?

Hi, well, of course my father pays the renovation costs. Recently, the living room, bedroom, and guest toilet were completely redone. P.S. The "war" here regarding Poland/West that has already escalated apparently (and hopefully) has calmed down again. And was apparently deleted by the mod :).

Is it allowed for a civil servant to work 100% from home abroad? That also has an impact on income tax, etc.?

Is it allowed for a civil servant to do 100% home office abroad? That also has effects on income tax, etc., right?

Of course, it depends on your employer to what extent home office is possible. Many employers in the public sector are still negatively disposed towards home office. Mine is not. Therefore, it depends on the individual case. And regarding (income) tax, it has no impact on civil servants, since for civil servants it does not depend on the place of residence/usual abode as it does for employees, but on the employment relationship with a public authority based in the country. This would be too much to explain here, but simply put, that’s how it is :).

Is it allowed for a civil servant to work 100% from home abroad? That also has an impact on income tax, etc., right?

As a civil servant, you have a few issues with aid, which also applies especially to partners and children. But otherwise, it is much easier to go abroad as a civil servant than as an employee (there are major issues with social security systems for the latter).

Even though I am not a bankster, I always thought German banks do not finance foreign properties.

Unless you have an unencumbered German property that can be mortgaged with sufficient collateral as well as the corresponding creditworthiness, of course.
I know quite a few people who wanted to finance a house in Croatia. That was not possible.

So I do not see it as simply as presented.

Even though I am not a bankster, I always thought German banks do not finance foreign real estate.

Most do not either. However, it is possible in border areas. Here in the Rhineland/Lower Rhine, for example, there are various banks that are engaged in Benelux.

Unless you have an unencumbered German property with sufficient collateral to be mortgaged

600k debt-free - then the bank does not care about the purpose. Capital procurement.

So I don't see it as straightforward as presented.

Specifically. Why is it not simple? Read the thread or did you just want to write something?