New regulations from 21.3.16 for loan issuance

  • Erstellt am 2016-03-26 10:07:50

toxicmolotof

2016-04-01 08:56:46
  • #1
Does the bank have any unilateral right of withdrawal within 3 years? Otherwise, it's rubbish (says a risk controller).

What use is a risk assessment 3 years after the binding contract conclusion?

Doesn't make much sense to me except in ongoing risk measurement. But are pay slips really necessary for that?

In the long run, it's not worth arguing about.
 

HilfeHilfe

2016-04-01 09:19:57
  • #2


No, no clause that I found related to a right of withdrawal if the financial conditions change.
 

toxicmolotof

2016-04-01 09:36:19
  • #3
Then it is, if it is not stated as a condition in the loan agreement, a nicety.

The child would have already fallen into the well anyway.

Decreases in income must be reported anyway. So somehow pointless. There are things...
 

laemat

2016-04-01 09:44:37
  • #4
Is this an April Fool's joke? If not, I have to read the terms and conditions again or is it different from bank to bank? Not that it concerns me but I wouldn’t have overlooked something like that… I think… I mean… hmm
 

HilfeHilfe

2016-04-01 09:58:33
  • #5


yes, I just called, the bank generally requests it proactively as a forward. they would check internally whether one can afford it. To the answer what happens if we are both unemployed and can afford it because we refrain from leisure activities, there was no response
 

toxicmolotof

2016-04-01 10:05:20
  • #6


No. You can forget the terms and conditions. There is nothing about that in there. However, it will be stated as an obligation of the customer in almost every credit agreement. But this has nothing to do with the Residential Mortgage Credit Directive. That existed already before.
 

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